What's So Great About Monotheism?
My latest FindLaw column (updated link here) unpacks and critiques a speech this past Sunday by Justice Scalia to an Orthodox Jewish group, in which he argued that the First Amendment's Establishment Clause should not be interpreted to prevent government from favoring religion over nonreligion. The full version of the argument, which is set forth at length in Justice Scalia's dissent in McCreary Count v. ACLU of Kentucky, asserts that government cannot favor one monotheistic religion over another but can favor monotheism over non-monotheistic religions and nonreligion---at least in some contexts. As I explain in the column, Justice Scalia's argument is principally based on what he takes to be an historical and ongoing tradition. He does not offer a normative defense of this view, and for good reason: It would be completely inappropriate for a Supreme Court doctrine to be based on the Justices' evaluation of which religious views are "better."
Nevertheless, I strongly suspect that anybody who finds Justice Scalia's argument persuasive on grounds of tradition will also think that monotheism is "better" than its alternatives. Mostly that's because of the statistics that Justice Scalia cites: a strong majority of Americans are in fact monotheists (although I problematize the term "monotheism" in my column). But that's a causal account rather than a normative account. Is there a normative account as well?
Let's put aside nonreligion. In what sense is monotheism better than polytheism? One answer might be the greater likelihood of universality. Polytheistic faiths are often local and so the associated gods are local. If tribe 1 wars with tribe 2, they may imagine themselves fighting a proxy battle between god 1 and god 2. But if there is just one true God, who created all the tribes and everything else in the world, then universal brotherhood and sisterhood might result.
That's possible in theory but in fact ahistorical. One key factor in the success of the Roman Empire was the fact that the Romans permitted conquered peoples to maintain allegiance to their local gods. The Gauls could become Roman citizens and their gods would not pose a challenge to Jupiter and the other Roman gods. By contrast, if there is only one true God, and your people thinks He goes by one name with one set of commandments, while my people think He goes by a different name with a different set of commandments, then we have the potential for holy war. And the history of fratricidal killing among the Mosaic faiths bears this out.
In any event, if someone thought monotheism were "better" than polytheism, it would likely be because she thought monotheism to be true and polytheism false, rather than because of the social consequences of following monotheism or polytheism. Are there reasons to think that?
As a boy attending Hebrew School I was taught that Abraham smashed the idols because they were false gods. The falseness of the idols was presented to us as a self-evident fact, and much of the story got its power from the portrayal of idol worship: How could a clay statue be animate, much less a god? I imagine that an actual polytheist would give an answer having to do with the spirit of the various gods entering the idols or some such transcendental claim, but because I was being instructed in a monotheistic faith, the point of the instruction wasn't to consider how one might render polytheism plausible.
Still, there is a certain psychological or aesthetic quality to monotheism that polytheism lacks. I suspect that over the years people have found monotheism attractive for the same sorts of reasons that physicists have been inspired to search for a unified field theory. A single God who created everything appears to provide a plausible answer to the ultimate metaphysical question: why does the world exist? Whatever the merits of Aristotle's argument for a Prime Mover, a single omnipotent God seems like more of an answer than the idea that there is a god of war, a god of the sea, a goddess of wisdom, etc. Polytheism supplies answers that pre-scientific people might accept to what we now would regard as scientific questions. E.g., why does the sun give light and heat? Because of the sun god. Polytheism has the wrong shape for answering the question of why there is something rather than nothing.
I offer this causal account of the seeming explanatory superiority of monotheism over polytheism only tentatively, however, because the great monotheistic faiths all arose among pre-scientific peoples, for whom answers to questions like "why are there seasons" could plausibly take the form "because the god of wind makes them." Still, at least by the time of recorded antiquity, human beings had begun asking the great metaphysical questions, and the ancient monotheistic faiths---Judaism, on one rendering, Zoroastrianism, and later, Christianity and Islam---provided answers that appeared more plausible than the ones polytheism provided.
But the very ways of thinking of Western-raised and educated people like myself and most of my readers have been profoundly shaped by our culture, with its many centuries of monotheism. Is it possible that the psychological or aesthetic preference for unifying explanations is itself a product of monotheism rather than a reason why rational beings were first attracted to monotheism? I'm inclined to think so. As skeptics have repeatedly observed, Aristotle's Prime Mover is not an answer to ultimate metaphysical questions because we can ask the same questions about Him. And that would seem to be no more nor less true of Prime Movers rather than a single Prime Mover.
Posted by Mike Dorf
Nevertheless, I strongly suspect that anybody who finds Justice Scalia's argument persuasive on grounds of tradition will also think that monotheism is "better" than its alternatives. Mostly that's because of the statistics that Justice Scalia cites: a strong majority of Americans are in fact monotheists (although I problematize the term "monotheism" in my column). But that's a causal account rather than a normative account. Is there a normative account as well?
Let's put aside nonreligion. In what sense is monotheism better than polytheism? One answer might be the greater likelihood of universality. Polytheistic faiths are often local and so the associated gods are local. If tribe 1 wars with tribe 2, they may imagine themselves fighting a proxy battle between god 1 and god 2. But if there is just one true God, who created all the tribes and everything else in the world, then universal brotherhood and sisterhood might result.
That's possible in theory but in fact ahistorical. One key factor in the success of the Roman Empire was the fact that the Romans permitted conquered peoples to maintain allegiance to their local gods. The Gauls could become Roman citizens and their gods would not pose a challenge to Jupiter and the other Roman gods. By contrast, if there is only one true God, and your people thinks He goes by one name with one set of commandments, while my people think He goes by a different name with a different set of commandments, then we have the potential for holy war. And the history of fratricidal killing among the Mosaic faiths bears this out.
In any event, if someone thought monotheism were "better" than polytheism, it would likely be because she thought monotheism to be true and polytheism false, rather than because of the social consequences of following monotheism or polytheism. Are there reasons to think that?
As a boy attending Hebrew School I was taught that Abraham smashed the idols because they were false gods. The falseness of the idols was presented to us as a self-evident fact, and much of the story got its power from the portrayal of idol worship: How could a clay statue be animate, much less a god? I imagine that an actual polytheist would give an answer having to do with the spirit of the various gods entering the idols or some such transcendental claim, but because I was being instructed in a monotheistic faith, the point of the instruction wasn't to consider how one might render polytheism plausible.
Still, there is a certain psychological or aesthetic quality to monotheism that polytheism lacks. I suspect that over the years people have found monotheism attractive for the same sorts of reasons that physicists have been inspired to search for a unified field theory. A single God who created everything appears to provide a plausible answer to the ultimate metaphysical question: why does the world exist? Whatever the merits of Aristotle's argument for a Prime Mover, a single omnipotent God seems like more of an answer than the idea that there is a god of war, a god of the sea, a goddess of wisdom, etc. Polytheism supplies answers that pre-scientific people might accept to what we now would regard as scientific questions. E.g., why does the sun give light and heat? Because of the sun god. Polytheism has the wrong shape for answering the question of why there is something rather than nothing.
I offer this causal account of the seeming explanatory superiority of monotheism over polytheism only tentatively, however, because the great monotheistic faiths all arose among pre-scientific peoples, for whom answers to questions like "why are there seasons" could plausibly take the form "because the god of wind makes them." Still, at least by the time of recorded antiquity, human beings had begun asking the great metaphysical questions, and the ancient monotheistic faiths---Judaism, on one rendering, Zoroastrianism, and later, Christianity and Islam---provided answers that appeared more plausible than the ones polytheism provided.
But the very ways of thinking of Western-raised and educated people like myself and most of my readers have been profoundly shaped by our culture, with its many centuries of monotheism. Is it possible that the psychological or aesthetic preference for unifying explanations is itself a product of monotheism rather than a reason why rational beings were first attracted to monotheism? I'm inclined to think so. As skeptics have repeatedly observed, Aristotle's Prime Mover is not an answer to ultimate metaphysical questions because we can ask the same questions about Him. And that would seem to be no more nor less true of Prime Movers rather than a single Prime Mover.
Posted by Mike Dorf
20 Comments:
At 5:17 AM,
Caleb said…
I'm inclined to agree with your last paragraph. My (admittedly limited) historical understanding suggests that one of the factors behind the enlightenment (at least the early parts of it) was the fact that God was a "universal" explanation, and knowing more about the universe was a way of knowing God (I'm thinking primarily of Newton I guess). If so, and if we credit the enlightenment for the scientific progress we have today, as well as (perhaps with more caveats) the progess we've made towards equality, could Scalia make some sort of constitutional analogy in his argument?
The US constitution, although it has a number of undemocratic parts (like the electoral college) is generally seen as responsible for the flourishing of democracy and freedom in the US, and is often (at least it seems to me) defended on these normative grounds. If monotheism is an even deeper reason for these same things, couldn't it be defended normatively on the same grounds?
At 9:43 AM,
Bob Moss said…
Rather than the abstract advantages of monotheism, we should be discussing Scalia’s supreme hypocrisy in trumpeting his alleged adherence to “originalism”, while ignoring both precedent and history when they don’t conform to his ideology. The problem with Scalia’s conception of the First Amendment as favoring monotheism is that it is completely ahistorical. Daniel Dreisbach has convincingly shown that the debate in the first half century of our Republic was between those such as Jefferson and Madison, who favored a wall or a line of separation between the state and religion, and, on the other side, those, such as Joseph Storey and the Rev. Jasper Adams, who believed that the United States was a Christian nation, and that therefore Christianity should be favored by the state, while rights of non-Christians to their beliefs should also be protected. Religion and Politics in the Early Republic, edited by Daniel Dreisbach (Lexington, Ky.: The University Press of Kentucky, 1996).
Scalia’s expansion of the protected group to all monotheistic beliefs reflects political calculations rather than a good-faith interpretation of the law. The Jewish vote has been important for decades, and since 9/11, people have woken up to the fact that we need to pay attention to Muslims.
At 12:30 PM,
Paul said…
Interesting, especially considering Scalia is a member of a polytheistic religion.
At 5:45 PM,
Michael C. Dorf said…
a propos of Paul's (tongue in cheek?) comment, my column (which FindLaw's new technology is delaying putting up for reasons unknown) makes the point that some Protestants and many Muslims regard Catholicism as polytheistic because of the rule of the Trinity, the Virgin Mary, and the saints.
At 7:09 PM,
Paul said…
It was not tongue in cheek. I frankly find it stunning that Catholics consider themselves monotheistic when their doctrine clearly recognizes a minimum of three divine forms. I personally think there is a strong case for Lucifer and the other devils and angels fitting that bill as well, but by Catholic doctrine the Trinity is undeniably three separate divinities.
The Virgin Mary and the Saints, however, are undeniably human and only human.
At 8:30 PM,
Patrick S. O'Donnell said…
Paul,
The Trinity is not "three gods" but one God, as to "substance," and three as to "persons." One oft-cited analogy is to water, which can take the form of a solid, a liquid, and a gas. This notion of 3as 1 is not understood to be wholly amenable to rational analysis (after all, 3 is not 1, nor does 1 = 3) and whatever the theological expositions of the doctrine, in the end, it is said to be (for better and worse) a "mystery." Now this *need* not mean it is irrational, but might be generously interpreted as non-rational, or a-rational, or even para-rational. Only a purely rational analysis will see this doctrine as a verson of polytheism. It is true that Muslims see this as a denial of the "oneness" and "unity" of God ('tawhid' is the theological term for this), and in this respect they are very much like their monotheistic Jewish predecessors. The more basic problem for religious Jews and Muslims, however, is the doctrine of (messianic) incarnation, the idea that God becomes flesh, that He suffers as man, etc.
Of course the ideas of incarnation and the conception of a triune deity go back much farther than Catholicism, as post-Vedic Hinduism has the notion of avataras of Vishnu who incarnate (as animals, humans, and gods) and the notion of the trimurti involves the three "forms" or "images" of *one" God: as Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva.
* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *
Because ideas of divinity in all three Abrahamic traditions have been deeply affected by Aristotelian, Platonic, and neo-Platonic philosophies I suspect it's rather difficult to say whether or not "the psychological or aesthetic preference for unifying explanations is itself a product of monotheism rather than a reason why rational beings were first attracted to monotheism." Still, that's a rather provocative question and one I need more time to mull over. Its attraction may be owing to the temptation intrinsic to post hoc ergo propter hoc reasoning. In any case, there was both the Dao in Chinese thought and Brahman (as nirguna Brahman) in (Advaita) Vedanta: did these monistic conceptions (more impersonal than their monotheistic counterparts) give rise to unifying explanations? Why not? Indeed, their "impersonal" and, I would contend, more logically consistent and satisfying conceptions, would seem even more hospitable to such explanations than monotheism.
All in all, interesting questions and much food for thought...apart from all the legal stuff.
At 8:57 PM,
Paul said…
Patrick,
Respectfully, that is clearly against doctrine and the plain reading of the Bible (if you accept the divinity of Christ in your doctrine). Christ is a separate being from "God". The Holy Spirit (Holy Ghost - you pick) I can accept as "up for grabs" as it is mentioned only in passing (and infrequently at that) in both the Bible and other doctrinal sources, though the strong implication is that it is on equal footing as God and Jesus - and thus must also be a separate being.
The Bible is filled with passages in which Jesus is clearly a separate being from God (being, not merely a separate form of the same being). Jesus questions his own self. Jesus has at least one significant disagreement with God (though ultimately ceding to His will). Throughout the Bible, Jesus himself treats God as a distinct and separate being. There is, in fact, to my knowledge, no passage in the Bible where Jesus asserts that he, himself, is God.
Secondly, even if you choose to ignore the plain and clear text in the Bible regarding the God and Jesus, you are still left with other divine beings which are very clearly not aspects of the Lord. Satan/Lucifer being the most obvious. The Host being another.
I see no principled distinction between these other beings and the members of the Pantheon. Sure, there are fewer of them, but in the end you have a collection of divine beings (not one, but several) who are clearly distinct from one another in which one (Jehovah/Zeus) sits atop. There are obviously differences in these religions, but a monotheistic/polytheistic distinction is not among them.
At 9:04 PM,
Paul said…
You are, of course, correct to the best of my knowledge, on Hinduism - it is monotheistic. The Avatars in Hinduism are clearly delineated as a form of God. Likewise, Brahma, Vishnu and Shiva are all aspects of the same God.
This is made very clear in Hindu texts (or at least in the English translations of those texts that I have read). I do not see this same thing as true in the Bible. To the contrary, your example of Hinduism seems to me to strike against your point.
At 9:57 PM,
Michael C. Dorf said…
What I know about Hinduism I learned principally in two courses in college, one on Indian civilization generally and another on Indian philosophy. The latter, admittedly, was taught by Robert Nozick, who told us on the first day of the class that he didn't know anything about the subject and so would be learning along with us. I found that to be such a refreshing attitude, and I found Nozick to be such an interesting thinker, that of course I took the course.
Anyway, there certainly are modern Hindus who say, as Paul does, that various gods are simply manifestations of the one God. Later holy books of Hinduism include statements like atman (often translated as "soul") equals Brahmin (often translated as "God"), which is not exactly monotheism, but something like saying that all forms of consciousness are simply manifestations of the single divine consciousness. Early Vedas and other early writings, as well as local practice, pretty clearly treat various gods (such as, say, Hanuman the monkey god or Ganesha the elephant god) as distinct, however. So I suppose the answer to the question of whether Hinduism is monotheistic or polytheistic depdends on the individual Hindu. And that tends to support the main point of my column, which is that the law ought not to be attaching significance to the distinction between monotheism and polytheism.
At 10:33 PM,
Bob Moss said…
Why don't we bring up the monophysites, as Abu Muhammad Ali ibn Hazm (994-1064) did, while lambasting the trinity? According to Will Durant, ibn Hazm was a theologian, historian, and vizier to the last of the Umayyads. He wrote:
"Human superstition need never excite our astonishment. The most numerous and civilized nations are thralls to it. . . . So great is the multitude of Christians that God alone can number them, and they can boast of sagacious princes and illustrious philosophers. Nevertheless they believe that one is three and three are one; that one of the three is the Father, the other the Son, and the third the Spirit; that the Father is the Son and is not the Son; that a man is God and not God, that the Messiah has existed from all eternity, and yet was created. A sect of theirs, the Monophysites, numbered by hundreds of thousands, believes that the Creator was scourged, buffeted, crucified, and that for three days the universe was without a ruler."
(Dozy, R., Spanish Islam (N.Y.: 1913), quoted in The Age of Faith (N.Y.: Simon and Schuster, 1950), at 305.) I'm not sure that ibn Hazm is entirely correct; the monophysites, which comprise the Coptic and Ethiopian churches, believe that Christ had but one nature, and that was divine.
At 10:49 PM,
Patrick S. O'Donnell said…
Paul,
I'm not stating what I happen to believe, only how Catholics themselves explain the Trinity. This doctrine in any case took some time to develop within the Church. I'll leave it to Catholics to reconcile specific passages from the Gospels with their understanding of the Trinity.
The atman=Brahman formulation ('Brahmins'/'brahmanas' is the term for Vedic priests) is indeed a later development (from the Upanishads, which are known as the end of the Vedas). Brahman can be variously translated depending on the tradition of Vedanta (Nondualism, Qualified Nondualism, Dualism, etc.; technically speaking, there are 10 such schools, principally, there are three). In Advaita Vedanta, Brahman is best translated as Ultimate Reality, not God, which is known as saguna Brahman, or Brahman with qualifications (or properties, attributes, etc.; hence, Ishvara is equivalent to saguna Brahman). The former forumulation, Ultimate Reality, however, is nirguna Brahman, which is Brahman without properties, qualities, etc., i.e., beyond conceptual formulation. In any case, this is a monistic formulation, and is not a species of monotheism (Mimamsa is a philosophical school often paired with Vedanta that is neither monistic, monotheistic or polytheistic). Other Vedanta schools will translate Brahman as "God." In any case, until such time as one has an "Atman=Brahman" realization, it is perfectly proper to worship "God," to pray to God, etc., but the realization itself is said to reveal only Brahman, which is not equivalent to God but beyond God as it were.
Of course Hinduism is enormously complicated, and the religion "on the ground" is different in some respects from that forumulated in the six orthodox philosophical schools (Nyaya, Vaisheshika, Mimamsa, Vedanta, Samkhya, and Yoga [diacritics unavailable, hence the phonetic translation]). Most Hindus worship Vishnu (or a consort of Vishnu, like Lakshmi), or incarnations of Vishnu, like Krishna, on the one hand, or Shiva (or his consort, Shakti or Devi), on the other (hence, they are Vaishnavas or Shaivites, the former more numerous than the latter).
Incidentally, in Vedic Hinduism, which is clearly polytheistic, the gods (Rudra, Agni, Sarasvati, etc.) are not personal gods, as personal deities are a post-Vedic development within Hinduism. It is misleading, however, to refer to post-Vedic Hinduism as polytheistic as the many gods (be it Ganesha or...) are nonetheless thought by most if not all Hindus to be, in the end, manifestations of, forms of, one God (again, hence the trimurti idea).
And I agree that law should not attach importance to the distinction between monotheism and polytheism. And of course Confucianism, Daoism and Buddhism cannot be properly characterized as either polytheistic or monotheistic.
Nozick was clearly sympathetic to Asian religious traditions, especially Hinduism, as one can infer from several passages and comments in Philosophical Explanations (I found this to be one of his endearing qualities as a professional philosopher as it clearly set him apart from most of his colleagues in the profession).
At 11:24 PM,
Derek said…
Very interesting discussion. On a less erudite note, I think many people find monotheism appealing because it allows for the illusion of agreement. Okay, devout followers of different monotheistic faiths will be unimpressed with a differently named God who imposes different commandments, but the more mushy believers among us are inclined to be more ecumenical. I think it's common for people to say things like, "there are many paths to the same Truth," or "the same God can be worshipped in different ways," etc.
To be clear, I don't think there is any way of re-shaping this into a cogent argument, I just think that, descriptively, many people are comforted by this kind of reasoning.
At 1:54 PM,
Jeffrey Robert said…
Maybe just semantics, but shouldn't the question be whether the constitution *prohibits* the government from favoring religion and not whether the constitution *permits* it?
At 2:05 PM,
Matthew C. Temkin said…
I think the human quest for unified theories predates (and is probably responsible for) the monotheistic religions. I think this is probably true because when performing tasks, humans prefer simplicity (e.g., we prefer recipes with 3 steps instead of 10).
Being religiously observant is a task (especially for those who are most religious - the same people who are responsible for shaping the religion). Accordingly, people probably want to make it easier. It's a lot easier to worship one god, and thank Him/Her/It for everything, than to thank the appropriate god for goodness it specifically has bestowed.
For example, I can thank a monotheistic god for both sunlight and food, whereas in a polytheistic religion, I might have to: (1) figure out which god was responsible for sunlight and which was responsible for food; and (2) thank both of them for their respective contributions to my continued well-being.
In fact, the sun god might have been responsible for not only daylight, but also the harvest, so I might have to thank the sun god twice, in addition to the other "harvest" god (a total of three "thanks" where I would only have one if following a monotheistic religion).
At 2:05 PM,
Matthew C. Temkin said…
I think the human quest for unified theories predates (and is probably responsible for) the monotheistic religions. I think this is probably true because when performing tasks, humans prefer simplicity (e.g., we prefer recipes with 3 steps instead of 10).
Being religiously observant is a task (especially for those who are most religious - the same people who are responsible for shaping the religion). Accordingly, people probably want to make it easier. It's a lot easier to worship one god, and thank Him/Her/It for everything, than to thank the appropriate god for goodness it specifically has bestowed.
For example, I can thank a monotheistic god for both sunlight and food, whereas in a polytheistic religion, I might have to: (1) figure out which god was responsible for sunlight and which was responsible for food; and (2) thank both of them for their respective contributions to my continued well-being.
In fact, the sun god might have been responsible for not only daylight, but also the harvest, so I might have to thank the sun god twice, in addition to the other "harvest" god (a total of three "thanks" where I would only have one if following a monotheistic religion).
At 3:56 PM,
egarber said…
Wow. Lots of good stuff here.
The only thing I can add is that, given how incredibly complex and subjective these matters are, the realm of religion is no place for the state AT ALL. If ever there was an area that demands firm counter-majoritarian limits on government power, this is it. Scalia's distinction seems totally arbitrary to me; and it doesn't reflect the history of the first amendment.
You might as well say the constitution permits government endorsement of religion, so long as the God is male only. Or maybe it's ok, provided that the faith acknowledges some form of original sin. It's incredibly baffling to me that a supposedly anti-"activist" crusader like Scalia thinks the SCOTUS (of all bodies) should determine such rules.
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